"Aleihem"

What's the din if someone was m'kadesh the word "aleihem" ... "dabar Hashem aleihem". He was makadesh first the Shem wrote it and then got mixed up after seeing the "alef-lamed" together and was mkadesh that and realized after writing "alef-lamed". What's the din?

Comments

  1. There is a machalokes ha'acharonim [see keset 11:16] although he is machmir - the iykar is to follow the Rema YD 276 that "hamakdish baalei mumim la'mazbeach lo niskadshu" (see Mishnat Hasofer ibid:56) -
    kal vchomer in this case that "hekdesh b'taus aino hekdesh".

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  2. My sofek was perhaps this is worse since the first 2 (or three letters) are a name of HaShem. See Keses HaSofer Siman 12 sif gimmel and sif-katan gimmel in Lishcas HaSofer.

    I have a feeling I'm wrong here however I want to know *why* is this different or not even comparable.

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    Replies
    1. The issue of e-l from e-lokim, is only when the shem is itself kadosh, then even the the 2 letters since they constitute a shem bythemself [although his cavana was not to write shem e-l, rather another shem - e-lokim] therefore they are kodesh.
      But in a case that the whole word would not be kadosh (according to Rema above) the first 2 letters are not kodesh, as well.
      This is pashut from the Rema himself, he is speaking about "elohim acherim" that isnt kodesh, although a person mistakenly was mekadesh the "elohim" there, and the Rema was not concerned about the e-l of elohim acherim.

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  3. So how does one understand the case of the Keses HaSofer in Siman 12, sif 3, sif-katan 3 (in a particular case of Yehuda.) Or is that simply going not like the Rema (i.e. like the machmirim)

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    Replies
    1. The difference is, that in yehuda his mistake was thinking that the correct word should be written sham YKVK, indeed wrote it lshem kedusha - therefore this is a shem kodesh, although written in the wrong place "shem shlo bimkomo".
      But in the question of aleihem, his mistake is in thinking this is a shem, but actualy mekadesh a word of chol, the kedusha doesn't apply.

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  4. I don't understand. In both cases there is a word of chol where he thought was a Shem Kodesh and wrote it l'shem kedusha. Yehuda is worse because it has in it YKVK?

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    Replies
    1. He did not intend to write yehuda, he mistaked and thought the correct word to be written should be YKVK and wrote so - so there is a complete shem kadosh written, but the mistake is that there should be a different word.
      But if the mistake was that he thought that yehuda is a shem, then the Rema's ruling applies. And if he wrote YK of yehuda according to the din this is not kadosh [there probably will be big problem of maris ha'ayin, but that may be solved, in contrast to mechikas hashem which is forbidden.

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